I am trying to implement schlick’s illumination model in hardware. To simplify the formula I make an assumption that my material is perfectly diffuse and isotropic. So I eliminate azimut and zenith terms (they are both 1). I assume also that my spectral term is constant.
So, I’m left with
R = Color * 1/(4piv, v’) there v= dot(normal, eye),v’= dot(normal, light)
I don’t understand this formula. At the end I get inverted diffuse light(it’s dark where it should be hell). Also it is very dark(1/(4pi) does the job). If I use R = v*v’ instead it looks good. I am really confused about it. Would appeciate an advice of some kind.
I don’t quite understand it. If I use roughtness of one, is is also only diffuse lighing then, right? In this case the formula will apeear as I’ve shown in the previous post. So why v’/pi? Isn’t is darkened Phong lighing? Sorry if I don’t get something, I greately luck knowledge of optical physics…
Equation 32. In your case l = 1, b = f = 0 (diffuse assumption), so R = 1 / pi is the BRDF. Then you multiply by the cosine of the light vector to get the display value.
Thanks, I’ve got it. My tests where based on a earlier paper; the equation 32 was not included there BTW, I completely forgot that integral… I guess I’m going to start it anew.
Another question: what should I do to that differential angle based integral? (BRDF equation) Never dealed with that kind of stuff…